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A stock has a spot price of $102. It is expected that it will pay a dividend of $2.20 per share in 6 months. What is the price of the stock 9 months forward? Assume zero coupon interest rates for 6 months to be 6%, for 9 months to be 7%, and 12 months to be 8% - all continuously compounded.
The dividend payment has a present value of $2.20*e^( -6%*6/12) = $2.14. Therefore the forward price for delivery 9 months hence should be ($102 - $2.14)*e^(7%*9/12) = $105.25
An asset manager is of the view that interest rates are currently high and can only decline over the coming 5 years. He has a choice of investing in the following four instruments, each of which matures in 5 years. Given his perspective, what would be the most suitable investment for the asset manager? Assume a flat yield curve.
There are two ways to think about this question: First,
because the asset manager thinks that interest rates are going to decline, his profit will be maximized if he buys the bond with the greatest duration. The zero coupon bond has the greatest duration among the alternatives listed. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
The second way to look at this question is to consider what is called 'reinvestment risk'. Yields to maturity calculations have an implicit assumption that any cash flows received prior to maturity are investible at the ytm rate. Thus, an yield to maturity calculation for a coupon bearing bond assumes that coupon payments get invested at the same rate as the calculated ytm from the time they are received till the time the bond matures. In an environment where interest rates fall, this assumption will not hold true. Reinvestment risk is the risk that coupons will not be able to earn the ytm that the bond was brought at - and the investor will be at a loss to the extent the money does not earn the ytm rate till the end of the investment. One way to reduce reinvestment risk is to minimize coupon receipts so the money stays invested as part of the bond, and the zero coupon bond helps to do exactly that.
An investor in mortgage backed securities can hedge his/her prepayment risk using which of the following?
1. Long swaption
II. Short cap
III. Short callable bonds
IV. Long fixed/floating swap
Mortgage backed securities carry prepayment risk as borrowers tend to prepay mortgages when rates fall, and substitute it with newer cheaper mortgages. This creates the issue of 'negative convexity' for mortgages, ie, they lose value when rates rise, but do not gain in value when rates fall.
Prepayment risk can be offset by instruments that also carry negative convexity. A swaption is an option to borrow in the future at an agreed rate, which may be fixed or floating. An option to borrow in the future paying floating and receiving fixed guards against losses when rates fall, as the option can be exercised for a profit when rates are declining and the mortgage portfolio is being prepaid. A callable bond is very similar to an MBS in that the issuer can call it back when rates fall. Thus a long position in an MBS can be offset by a short position in a callable bond. Thus I and III are valid choices.
A cap allows exchanging fixed for floating when interest rates rise above an agreed rate. A long cap position allows borrowing at a fixed rate in exchange for floating, and a short cap implies receiving fixed and paying floating when rates go above the strike rate. Prepayment risk arises from falling interest rates, therefore a short cap will not protect against such a risk as falling interest rates would mean that no payments would be exchanged. Thus II does not help hedge against the risk in question.
A long position in a fixed for floating swap would require paying fixed and receiving floating when rates are falling. This would just make the problem from prepayments worse as the position would pay fixed and receive a falling rate. Thus IV is not an appropriate way to hedge prepayment risk.
An equity portfolio manager desires to be 'market neutral'. His portfolio is valued at $10m and has a beta of 0.7 to the broad market index. The index is currently at 1000 and an index contract multiplier is specified as 250. What should he do to make the beta of his portfolio zero?
In terms of beta, his exposure is $10m*0.7 = $7m. This exposure is long. In order order to neutralize his long exposure, he needs to have an equal an identical short position with the same beta as this long position (of course, in the short direction). We need to figure out how many contracts will have a beta equal to his held position. (The beta of a futures contract is slightly different from 1 when compared to spot, but in the absence of other information in the question it is always okay to assume that the beta of the futures contract is 1. Such precision does not matter because of other errors such as rounding etc that cannot be anyway done away with.)
He needs to short futures contracts on the index with $7m in notional value. The value of each contract is currently 1000*250 =$250,000. He therefore needs to short $7m/$250,000 = 28 contracts to become market or beta neutral.
Which of the following is not a money market security
A money market security is one that is initially issued with a maturity of less than one year. Treasury bills are short-term government securities with maturities ranging from a few days to 52 weeks. Bills are sold at a discount from their face value, and do not carry a coupon. Treasury notes and treasury bonds are not money market instruments as they are issued for a maturity greater than a year. Treasury notes are issued with maturities of 2, 3, 5, 7, and 10 years and pay interest every six months. Treasury bonds pay interest every six months and mature in 30 years.
Commercial paper is issued by corporations to meet their short term funding needs and is a money market instrument. Bankers' acceptances are short term loans to corporations that are guaranteed by a bank.
Of the given list, since treasury notes are the only instrument that are not money market securities, Choice 'a' is the correct answer.
