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[Security Engineering and Cryptography]
Previously intercepted communications must remain secure even if a current encryption key is compromised in the future. Which of the following best supports this requirement?
Forward secrecy (FS) ensures that past encrypted data remains secure even if encryption keys are compromised in the future. Itgenerates ephemeral session keys that are not reused.
Other options:
A (Tokenization) replaces sensitive data with tokens but does not prevent key compromise.
B (Key stretching) makes brute-force attacks harder but does not ensure secrecy after compromise.
D (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals -- SAE) is used in WPA3 but is not related to past communication security.
[Security Architecture]
A vulnerability can on a web server identified the following:
Which of the following actions would most likely eliminate on path decryption attacks? (Select two).
On-path decryption attacks, such as BEAST (Browser Exploit Against SSL/TLS) and other related vulnerabilities, often exploit weaknesses in the implementation of CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode. To mitigate these attacks, the following actions are recommended:
B . Removing support for CBC-based key exchange and signing algorithms: CBC mode is vulnerable to certain attacks like BEAST. By removing support for CBC-based ciphers, you can eliminate one of the primary vectors for these attacks. Instead, use modern cipher modes like GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) which offer better security properties.
C . Adding TLS_ECDHE_ECDSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256: This cipher suite uses Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) for key exchange, which provides perfect forward secrecy. It also uses AES in GCM mode, which is not susceptible to the same attacks as CBC. SHA-256 is a strong hash function that ensures data integrity.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-52 Rev. 2, 'Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) Implementations'
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on cryptography and secure communication
[Security Operations]
An analyst reviews a SIEM and generates the following report:
OnlyHOST002is authorized for internet traffic. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Comprehensive and Detailed
Understanding the Security Event:
HOST002 is the only device authorized for internet traffic. However, theSIEM logs show that VM002 is making network connections to web.corp.local.
This indicatesunauthorized access, which could bea sign of lateral movement or network infection.
This is ared flagfor potential malware, unauthorized software, or a compromised host.
Why Option D is Correct:
Unusual network traffic patternsare often an indicator of acompromised system.
VM002 should not be communicating externally, but it is.
This suggests a possiblebreach or malware infectionattempting to communicate with a command-and-control (C2) server.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (Misconfiguration):While a misconfiguration could explain the unauthorized connections, the pattern of activity suggests something more malicious.
B (Security incident on HOST002):The issue is not with HOST002. The suspicious activity isfrom VM002.
C (False positives):The repeated pattern of unauthorized connections makes false positivesunlikely.
CompTIASecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide:Chapter on SIEM & Incident Analysis
MITRE ATT&CK Tactics:Lateral Movement & Network-based Attacks
NIST 800-94:Guidelines for Network Intrusion Detection and Analysis
[Security Operations]
A security analyst notices a number of SIEM events that show the following activity:
10/30/2020 - 8:01 UTC - 192.168.1.1 - sc stop HinDctend
10/30/2020 - 8:05 UTC - 192.168.1.2 - c:\program files\games\comptidcasp.exe
10/30/2020 - 8:07 UTC - 192.168.1.1 - c:\windows\system32\cmd.exe /c powershell
10/30/2020 - 8:07 UTC - 192.168.1.1 - powershell ---> 40.90.23.154:443
Which of the following response actions should the analyst take first?
The first immediate action in an active incident iscontainment.Blocking the IP address (40.90.23.154)at the network edge prevents further communication with the malicious external server. Disabling PowerShell or removing local admin privileges are valid hardening steps, but containment by network control is the highest priority during an active compromise to stop data exfiltration or further command and control activity.
[Security Architecture]
Asoftware company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the application Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts?
The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security, they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.
Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?
Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.
Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure, leading to potential security risks.
Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.
Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:
A . Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger anti-malware alerts.
C . Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically anti-malware alerts.
D . Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to anti-malware alerts.
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
'Securing Open Source Libraries,' OWASP
'Managing Third-Party Software Security Risks,' Gartner Research