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A hospital provides tablets to its medical staff to enable them to more quickly access and edit patients' charts. The hospital wants to ensure that if a tablet is Identified as lost or stolen and a remote command is issued, the risk of data loss can be mitigated within seconds. The tablets are configured as follows to meet hospital policy
* Full disk encryption is enabled
* "Always On" corporate VPN is enabled
* ef-use-backed keystore is enabled'ready.
* Wi-Fi 6 is configured with SAE.
* Location services is disabled.
*Application allow list is configured
To mitigate the risk of data loss on a lost or stolen tablet quickly, the most effective strategy is to return the device's solid-state media to zero, which effectively erases all data on the device. Here's why:
Immediate Data Erasure: Returning the solid-state media to zero ensures that all data is wiped instantly, mitigating the risk of data loss if the device is lost or stolen.
Full Disk Encryption: Even though the tablets are already encrypted, physically erasing the data ensures that no residual data can be accessed if someone attempts to bypass encryption.
Compliance and Security: This method adheres to best practices for data security and compliance, ensuring that sensitive patient data cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-88: Guidelines for Media Sanitization
ISO/IEC 27002:2013 - Information Security Management
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and protecting against:
* Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
* Bypassing application security mechanisms
* Privilege escalation
* interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux). Here's why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently applied.
Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the risk of privilege escalation attacks.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NSA's Guide to the Secure Configuration of Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (SELinux)
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
A company is preparing to move a new version of a web application to production. No issues were reported during security scanning or quality assurance in the CI/CD pipeline. Which of the following actions should the company take next?
The question states that security scanning and quality assurance (QA) in the CI/CD pipeline have been completed with no issues, indicating that the code in the test branch is ready for production. According to the CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 study guide (Domain 2: Security Operations, 2.3), in a secure CI/CD pipeline, once code passes automated security scans, QA, and other checks (e.g., unit testing, peer reviews), the next step is to merge the tested branch into the main branch for deployment to production.
Option B: Threat modeling is typically performed earlier, during design or development, not after passing CI/CD checks.
Option C: Unit testing is part of the CI/CD pipeline and should already be completed.
Option D: Peer reviews are conducted before or during the test phase, not after QA and security scans are clear.
Option A: Merging the test branch to the main branch is the logical next step to prepare for production deployment.
CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide, Domain 2: Security Operations, Section 2.3: 'Manage secure software development lifecycles, including CI/CD pipelines.'
CAS-005 Exam Objectives, 2.3: 'Analyze secure deployment processes in CI/CD environments.'
A security officer received several complaints from users about excessive MPA push notifications at night The security team investigates and suspects malicious activities regarding user account authentication Which of the following is the best way for the security officer to restrict MI~A notifications''
Excessive MFA push notifications can be a sign of an attempted push notification attack, where attackers repeatedly send MFA prompts hoping the user will eventually approve one by mistake. To mitigate this:
A . Provisioning FIDO2 devices: While FIDO2 devices offer strong authentication, they may not be practical for all users and do not directly address the issue of excessive push notifications.
B . Deploying a text message-based MFA: SMS-based MFA can still be vulnerable to similar spamming attacks and phishing.
C . Enabling OTP via email: Email-based OTPs add another layer of security but do not directly solve the issue of excessive notifications.
D . Configuring prompt-driven MFA: This option allows users to respond to prompts in a secure manner, often including features like time-limited approval windows, additional verification steps, or requiring specific actions to approve. This can help prevent users from accidentally approving malicious attempts.
Configuring prompt-driven MFA is the best solution to restrict unnecessary MFA notifications and improve security.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-63B, 'Digital Identity Guidelines'
'Multi-Factor Authentication: Best Practices' by Microsoft
A news organization wants to implement workflows that allow users to request that untruthful data be retraced and scrubbed from online publications to comply with the right to be forgotten Which of the following regulations is the organization most likely trying to address'
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the regulation most likely being addressed by the news organization. GDPR includes provisions for the 'right to be forgotten,' which allows individuals to request the deletion of personal data that is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected. This regulation aims to protect the privacy and personal data of individuals within the European Union.
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers GDPR and its requirements, including the right to be forgotten.
GDPR official documentation: Details the rights of individuals, including data erasure and the right to be forgotten.
'GDPR: A Practical Guide to the General Data Protection Regulation' by IT Governance Privacy Team: Provides a comprehensive overview of GDPR compliance, including workflows for data deletion requests.
